Open
Posted online: 2018-06-12 15:44:09Z by Juan J Manfredi116
Cite as: P-180612.3
Consider a $p$-harmonic function in the unit ball $\mathbb{B}(0,1)\subset\mathbb{R}^n$, where $1< p< \infty$, $p\not=2$, and $n\ge3$. Suppose that $u(x)=0$ for all $x\in \mathbb{B}(0,1/2)$. Does it follow that $u$ is identically zero in $\mathbb{B}(0,1)$?
No solutions added yet
Created at: 2018-06-12 15:44:09Z
No remarks yet